Newsflash: Looking for clarification- commissions

Seller here. Have a home in CA that is listed for sale. Fixer upper and received cash offer from an investor who states he will be representing himself. So naturally, I assumed that I wouldn’t have to pay the buyer’s agent commission fee.I asked my listing agent about it, and she said no, that the buyer’s agent commission will automatically go to her. I was wanting clarification, but all she stated was, “its per the contract”. And didn’t want to explain further. When I read the contract, it states 6% goes to her brokerage with 3% of that going to the buyer’s agent. But the buyer doesn’t want my agent to represent him so i’m confused. I can’t go above my listing agent to get more clarification because she is the broker herself.When I google online, I’m only finding verbiage where it states that if a buyer is unrepresented, to create a dual agency, the buyer must give consent and upon that, then listing agent will get both sides of the commission. I even called a repsentative at the local association and they stated that the listing agent only gets the buyer’s commission after it is agreed upon seller and buyer to be represented by the same agent. If i’m obligated to, I will pay both sides of the commission. I’m just looking for what the true process is because i’m getting conflicting information. Its a 16K commission to the buyer’s agent so I want to make sure i’m understanding everything.Any feedback is appreciated! Thanks.