Newsflash: Real Estate Agent W/ A Listing & Option To Purchase Must Obtain Consent?

Hello, I am reading from a California Real Estate book and there’s a part that says: “A salesperson who has a listing and an option to purchase a property, from the seller, must at the same time, disclose all offers, material information, and obtain consent from the seller of any anticipated profits from the seller before exercising the option to purchase.”What does it mean by “obtain consent?” To me it sounds like the optionee (salesperson in this) would need permission from his client the optionor (seller), of anticipated profits. Why would this be the case since agent purchased the option to exercise that right at his will within the prescribed period? Hopefully this only applies to when it’s a salesperson and seller rather than an ordinary individual because this just doesn’t make sense.


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